Assume that the underlying inner product spaces are finite-dimensional.
(a) Operators and their adjoints have the same eigenvectors.
(b) If T is an operator on an inner product space V, then T is normal iff [T]_β is normal, where β is any ordered basis for V.
(c) A real complex matrix A is normal iff L_A is normal.
(d) Every normal operator is diagonalizable.
This is what I have:
(a) False. Becuase T and T* are pretty much completely different operators.
(b) False. This is becuase if T is normal it doesn't necessarily mean that [T]_β will be becuase β was only an ordered basis. I'm guessing that if β had consisted of eigenvectors of T then it would have been true?
c) True. L_A = Ax so taking adjoint it becomes A* x, and then obviously (A*x)(Ax) = (Ax)(A*x). And other direction, AA* = A*A, and multiplying both sides by xx it follows that L_A is normal.
d) False. That's what I think but not sure how to show.
I would really appreciate it if someone could help me =)
Abstract Algebra: True or False?
(a) is false, but it's better just to give a counterexample, say
[1 1]
[0 2].
(b) I'm guessing that [T]_β means the operator T expressed with respect to the basis β. So here's what to do to check it out: a change of basis takes T to S = PTP^(-1). Is it true that T normal iff S normal?
(c) Real or complex doesn't matter; just work over the arbitrary field F. Note that (L_A)* = L_(A*). L_A normal means that (L_A) (L_A)* =(L_A)* (L_A); i.e. that
(L_A) (L_A*) =(L_A*) (L_A). Let x ∈ F^n be arbitrary.
If A is normal, then (L_A) (L_A*) x = (L_A)(A*x) = AA*x = A*Ax = A*(L_A)x = (L_A)* (L_A)x. Since x was arbitrary, we have (L_A) (L_A)* =(L_A)* (L_A); i.e.L_A is normal.
Now you do the opposite direction.
(d) True; that's what the spectral theorem says.
statice
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